vs. 29 & 31 Why does Jesus always refer to himself as "Son of Man" But never personally calls himself "Christ"?
vs 33 May i always be thinking of God's will, not my own. It's not about what I want, but what God's plan is.
Posted by
Unknown
vs. 29 & 31 Why does Jesus always refer to himself as "Son of Man" But never personally calls himself "Christ"?
vs 33 May i always be thinking of God's will, not my own. It's not about what I want, but what God's plan is.
Copyright 2009 - A One Year Challenge
Blogspot Theme designed by: Ray Creations, Ray Hosting.
1 comments:
I've always wondered this too!
Post a Comment